Desmo
02-24-2016, 02:59 PM
I've been searching the internet to find an answer why FF's upper a-arm has pivot points but no luck.
Isn't it better to have a fixed, rigid upper A-arms? Please help me understand the engineering behind it.
Does the torque generated by the braking cancel out the rearward movement of the spindle? Perhaps that's why the upper a-arm has only one non-pivoting point?
Isn't it better to have a fixed, rigid upper A-arms? Please help me understand the engineering behind it.
Does the torque generated by the braking cancel out the rearward movement of the spindle? Perhaps that's why the upper a-arm has only one non-pivoting point?